Cause title — parties, addresses and appearances
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
Page 1 of 39
$~23
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IN THE HIGH COURT OF DELHI AT NEW DELHI
+
Date of Decision: 10.01.2019
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W.P.(C) 4573/2012
CARLOS ALBERTO PEREZ LAFUENTE
..... Petitioner
Through:
Mr. Ashutosh Kumar and Mr.Vinod
Chauhan, Advocates.
versus
UOI & ORS
..... Respondents
Through:
Mr. Jasmeet Singh, CGSC with
Mr.Srivats Kaushal and Mr. Aditya
Madaan, Advocates for UOI.
Mr. Anil Dutt and Ms. Gunjan Hans,
Advocates for intervener.
CORAM:
HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE VIPIN SANGHI
HON'BLE MR. JUSTICE A.K. CHAWLA
VIPIN SANGHI, J. (ORAL)
CM APPL. 13069/2018 (under Order 1 Rule 10 CPC)
1.
By this application, applicant seeks to intervene in the matter. Since
we have heard the submissions of learned counsel for the applicant on
merits, this application has become infructuous. The same is accordingly
disposed of.
W.P.(C) 4573/2012 & CM APPL. 9501/2012 (for stay)
2.
The petitioner has preferred the present writ petition to assail the
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order dated 30.01.2012 passed by the Deputy Controller of Patents &
Designs-Respondent No.4, whereby respondent No.4 refused to take on
record the request of the petitioner for examination of his patent application.
The petitioner also seeks a Writ of Certiorari to quash the decision of the
respondents to treat the petitioner‟s application (7318/DELNP/2008) as
„Deemed to be Withdrawn‟ under Section 11-B (4) of the Patents Act, 1970
(The Act). A further direction is sought to respondent Nos. 2 to 4 to take the
petitioner‟s Form-18 (request for examination), and to process the subject
patent application as per the provisions of the Act.
3.
The petitioner filed a PCT application (international phase), being
application number PCT/EP2007/052939 titled as „Method and System for
monitoring a mobile station presence in a special area‟ on 27.03.2007,
claiming priority from 28.03.2006, in respect of its European patent
application (#06111804.8). The petitioner chose India as one of the
designated states and the national phase application (India) was filed by him
on 28.8.2008 being application number 7318/DELNP/2008.
4.
The petitioner then moved an application in Form-18 i.e. he made a
request for examination of his application on 19.11.2010. The Patent Office,
Delhi, however, by a non-speaking order dated 25.11.2010 refused to accept
the said Form-18 as filed by the petitioner‟s agent. Being aggrieved by the
said action of the respondent, the petitioner approached this Court by
preferring W.P.(C) No. 6975/2011. The said writ petition was disposed of on
23.09.2011 with a direction to the Patent Office to examine the petitioner‟s
representation and to pass an order after hearing the petitioner. The
petitioner was, accordingly, granted hearing and the impugned order came to
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be passed by the Deputy Controller of Patents & Designs-Respondent No.4
on 30.01.2012, rejecting the said representation. The petitioners‟ application
in Form-18 was considered as time barred, since the same was not moved
within 48 months of the priority date, which was earlier of the two dates –
the priority date and the date of the patent application made under the Act.
The delay in moving the Form-18 application was not condoned by the
Respondents. In this background, the petitioner has preferred the present
writ petition.
5.
The writ petition was initially listed before the learned Single Judge
of this Court. Since it was urged on behalf of the respondent that the issue
raised by the petitioner was covered against the petitioner by the judgment
in „Nippon Steel Corporation v Union of India‟, W.P. (C) No. 801/2011,
decided on 08.02.2011, and that the said decision was pending consideration
in a Letters Patent Appeal, the proceedings in writ petition were adjourned.
6.
The petitioner then moved an application to intervene in LPA
379/2011, which was preferred against the decision in Nippon Steel
Corporation (supra). The same was allowed on 09.12.2014. Consequently,
the writ petition came to be listed before the Division Bench. In the
meantime, the said LPA No. 379/2011 preferred in the case of Nippon Steel
Corporation (supra) was withdrawn. However, the issue raised by the
petitioner remains to be answered. Thus, the writ petition has been heard.
7.
Before we proceed further, to appreciate the controversy and the
submissions of learned counsels we consider it appropriate to extract the
relevant portions of Section 11B of the Act and Rule 24B of the Patents
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Rules, 2003 (The Rules). They read as follows:-
Section 11 B
“11B. Request for examination.—
(1) No application for a patent shall be examined unless the
applicant or any other interested person makes a request in
the prescribed manner for such examination within the
prescribed period
(2) … … …
(3) In case of an application in respect of a claim for a patent
filed under sub-section (2) of section 5 before the 1st day of
January, 2005 a request for its examination shall be made in
the prescribed manner and within the prescribed period by the
applicant or any other interested person.
(4) In case the applicant or any other interested person does
not make a request for examination of the application for a
patent within the period as specified under sub-section (1) or
sub-section (3), the application shall be treated as withdrawn
by the applicant:
Provided that—
(i) the applicant may, at any time after filing the
application but before the grant of a patent, withdraw the
application by making a request in the prescribed
manner; and
(ii) in a case where secrecy direction has been issued
under section 35, the request for examination may be
made within the prescribed period from the date of
revocation of the secrecy direction.”(emphasis supplied)
Rule 24B
“24B. Examination of application.—
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(1) (i) A request for examination under section 11B shall be
made in Form 18 within forty-eight months from the date of
priority of the application or from the date of filing of the
application, whichever is earlier;
(ii) The period within which the request for examination under
sub-section (3) of section 11B to be made shall be forty-eight
months from the date of priority if applicable, or forty-eight
months from the date of filing of the application;
(iii) The request for examination under sub-section (4) of
section 11B shall be made within forty-eight months from the
date of priority or from the date of filing of the application, or
within six months from the date of revocation of the secrecy
direction, whichever is later;
(iv) The request for examination of application as filed
according to the 'Explanation' under sub-section (3) of section
16 shall be made within forty-eight months from the date of
filing of the application or from the date of priority of the first
mentioned application or within six months from the date of
filing of the further application, whichever is later;
(v) The period for making request for examination under
section 11B, of the applications filed before the 1st day of
January, 2005 shall be the period specified under the section
11B before the commencement of the Patents (Amendment) Act,
2005 or the period specified under these rules, whichever
expires later.”(emphasis supplied)
8.
The controversy has arisen, since the petitioner moved the application
requesting for examination in Form-18 on 19.11.2010 i.e. beyond the period
of 48 months from the earlier of the two dates, i.e. the date of priority
(28.03.2006) and the date of the application (i.e. 28.08.2008). However, the
said request for examination was made within 48 months of the filing of the
application for grant of patent by the petitioner before the Patent Office,
New Delhi on 28.08.2008. Thus, the issue that arises for consideration,
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firstly, is from which date the period of 48 months prescribed in Rule 24-
B(1)(i) of the Rules should be computed – from the date of priority, or from
the date of filing of the application under the Act. The second issue that
arises for consideration is, whether the said limitation of 48 months is
directory or mandatory, i.e. whether the delay in filing the request for
examination in Form-18 can be condoned, or not.
9.
The submission of Ld. Counsel for the petitioner is that said period is
directory. The petitioner submits that the Controller of Patent was
empowered to exercise the discretion to condone the delay, if any, upon
examination of the justification offered by the applicant. The petitioner has
also drawn the attention of the Court to the facts and circumstances of his
case to show that the delay, if any, is entirely bona fide and on account of
the wrong interpretation of Rule 24-B(1) (i) published in the publication of
WIPO wherein, instead of the word “earlier” used in the said Rule, the word
“later” was printed. The petitioner also relies upon communication received
from WIPO, to claim that it had published its interpretation of the Rule after
approval from the Patent Office under the Act. The petitioner has also relied
upon e-mail communications received from its Indian agent, even prior to
the expiry of the period of 48 months from the date of priority, which also
misled the petitioner to believe that the petitioner had time to move his
request for examination in Form-18 till the expiry of 48 months from the
date of filing of the application for grant of patent under the Act.
10.
The submission of learned counsel for the petitioner is that the
introduction of the deferred examination system was to reduce the workload
of the Patent Office, since prior to introduction of the said system, all
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applications necessarily had to be examined. By introducing the deferred
examination procedure, only such of the applications need to be examined
about which the applicant is serious, and which he wishes to pursue. The
submission is that the correspondence undertaken by the petitioner with its
Indian counsel/agent would show that the petitioner was throughout diligent
and interested in pursuing the application, and it is not a case where the
petitioner was casual or sleeping over his rights. Learned counsel submits
that the consequence of interpreting the period of limitation of 48 months
strictly – from the earlier of the two, i.e. the priority date and the date of the
application, would be grave for the petitioner, since his right to claim
statutory monopoly over his invention in the Indian jurisdiction would be
lost forever.
11.
Learned counsel for the petitioner has sought to place reliance on the
decision of the Gujarat High Court in Amitara Industries Ltd. vs. Union of
India, (2014) 27 GSTR 186 (Guj) rendered by the Division Bench of the
said Court, wherein the Division Bench held that „if an aggrieved person
knocks the door of High Court seeking redressal under writ jurisdiction for
valid reasons, to obviate extraordinary hardship and injustice such
challenge can be entertained even beyond the period of limitation‟. He also
placed reliance on Rafiq and Another vs. Munshilal and Another, (1981) 2
SCC 788, wherein the Supreme Court held that delay on account of mistake
of the counsel should not prejudice the rights of the party.
12.
Learned counsel for the intervener has sought to urge that the word
“earlier” used in Rule 24-B(1)(i) should, in fact, be read as “later”, since, in
most cases, the date of priority would invariably be earlier to the date of
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filing of the application, and therefore, the use of the word “earlier” would
become a surplusage, if literally construed. For it to have a meaningful
interpretation, the said word should be read as “later”. In this regard, he
refers to Rule 24-B(1)(iii),(iv) and (v). All of them use the word “later”.
13.
On the other hand, Mr. Jasmeet Singh submits that the period of
limitation prescribed in Rule 24-B(1)(i) is firm, and the same cannot be
relaxed. He submits that Rule 138 of the Rules specifically excludes the
power of the Controller to extend the time prescribed, inter alia, in respect
of the time prescribed under sub-Rule (1) (i) of 24-B. Since there is an
express bar to extension of time, inter alia, in respect of the time prescribed
in Rule 24-B(1) (i), irrespective of whatever the justification the petitioner
may have for not making the request for examination in Form-18 within 48
months of the earlier of the priority date and the date of filing of the
application, the said period of limitation cannot be extended and the
petitioner is bound to suffer the consequences of not making the application
for examination within the prescribed period. Consequently, in terms of
Section 11-B (4) of the Act, the application of the petitioner for grant of
patent is bound to be treated as withdrawn. He also places reliance on the
decision of „Nippon Steel Corporation vs. Union of India‟, 2011(3) R.A.J.
254(Del). He submits that the word “earlier” cannot be read as “later” in
Rule 24B(1)(i) as that would amount to doing violence to the express words
of the statute. He submits that the vires of the said Rule is not under
challenge. He submits that the plain grammatical meaning should be
adopted while reading the said Rule, as it is clear and does not admit of
ambiguity, or lead to absurdity – if read literally.
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14.
We have heard the learned counsel for the petitioner, as well as
learned counsel for the intervener on the one hand, and learned Standing
Counsel for the respondents on the other hand, and have considered the
respective submissions.
15.
The deferred examination system was introduced in the Act by the
Patents (Amendment) Act, 2002. Prior to that, all patent applications were
required to be examined by the Controller of Patents under Section 12.
Section 11B (1) provides that an application for grant of patent would not be
examined, unless a specific request is made by the applicant in the
prescribed manner for examination thereof. Such an application for
examination is required to be made within the prescribed period. The
consequence of the application/request for examination not being made
within the prescribed period is also provided in sub-section (4) – to say that
such an application would be treated as withdrawn by the applicant. Even
prior to amendment by Act 15 of 2005 (w.e.f. 01.01.2005), Section 11B(4)
provided that in case the applicant, or any other interested person, does not
make a request for examination of the application for patent within the
period prescribed, the application shall be treated as withdrawn by the
applicant.
16.
Section 11-B(1), as its stood prior to amendment by Act 15 of 2005
w.e.f. 01.01.2005, provided that “No application for patent shall be
required to be examined unless the applicant or any other interested person
makes a request in the prescribed manner for such examination within
forty-eight months from the date of filing of the application for
patent”.(emphasis supplied).
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17.
Thus, prior to amendment of Section 11B with effect from
01.01.2005, there was no reference to the date of priority in Section 11B.
Pertinently, Section 135 – which falls in Chapter XXII of the Act – and
deals with International Arrangements, was also amended by Act 15 of 2005
(w.e.f. 01.01.2005). Section 135 stipulates that in respect of convention
applications, the “priority date” of a claim of the complete specification,
being a claim based on matter disclosed in the application for patent made in
a convention country (called the basic application) is the date of making of
the basic application. On the aspect: which date is to be considered as the
“priority date”, the amended provision appears to be similar to the one that
existed in the Act prior to the introduction of Amendments vide Amendment
Act 15 of 2005. Section 135(1) of the Act, as amended, reads as follows:
“135. Convention applications.—(1) Without prejudice to the
provisions contained in section 6, where a person has made an
application for a patent in respect of an invention in a
convention country (hereinafter referred to as the "basic
application"), and that person or the legal representative or
assignee of that person makes an application under this Act for
a patent within twelve months after the date on which the basic
application was made, the priority date of a claim of the
complete specification, being a claim based on matter
disclosed in the basic application, is the date of making of the
basic application.
Explanation.—Where applications have been made for similar
protection in respect of an invention in two or more convention
countries, the period of twelve months referred to in this sub-
section shall be reckoned from the date on which the earlier or
earliest of the said applications was made.” (emphasis
supplied)
18.
Section 11B(1) as it now exists – does not, by itself, prescribe
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the period within which the request for examination of the patent
application has to be made, but leaves the aspect of prescribing the
said period of limitation elsewhere. The “prescribed manner” and the
“prescribed period” were prescribed under the amended Rules, which
too were amended with effect from 5th May, 2006. Rule 24B deals
with these aspects, which has been noticed hereinabove.
19.
The first Rule of statutory interpretation is to adopt the literal
interpretation of the statute and to go by the grammatical meaning of the
words used in the statute, unless there is a good reason not to do so, e.g.
where it leads to absurdity, or there is some other compelling reason for
departing from this rule of construction. In this regard, we may refer to the
observation of the Supreme Court in Jugalkishore Saraf v. M/s Raw Cotton
Co. Ltd., AIR 1955 SC 376. The Supreme Court in this decision observed:
“…. …. The cardinal rule of construction of statutes is to read
the statute literally, that is by giving to the words used by the
legislature their ordinary, natural and grammatical meaning.
If, however, such a reading leads to absurdity and the words
are susceptible of another meaning the court may adopt the
same. But if no such alternative construction is possible, the
court must adopt the ordinary rule of literal interpretation….
…”.
20.
“Principles of Statutory Interpretation” by Justice G.P. Singh 12th
Edition 2010 extracts portions of the speeches of the English Law Lords in a
few decisions relevant on the subject. We may extract what we consider
relevant from the said commentary from pages 85 and 86. The same reads
as follows:
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“… … …“The true way”, according to LORD BROUGHAM is,
“to take the words as the Legislature have given them, and to
take the meaning which the words given naturally imply, unless
where the construction of those words is, either by the preamble
or by the context of the words in question, controlled or
altered” Crawford V. Spooner, [(1846) 4 MIA 179, p. 181 : 6
Moo PC 1 (PC)], and in the words of VISCOUNT HALDANE,
L.C., if the language used “has a natural meaning we cannot
depart from that meaning unless, reading the statute as a
whole, the context directs us to do so.[Attorney General V.
Milne, (1914-15) All ER Rep 1061, p. 1063 : 1914 AC 765
(HL)]”
21.
The submission of learned counsel for the petitioner, as well as
learned counsel for the intervener that the period of 48 months prescribed in
rule 24B(1)(i) should be computed from the “later” of the two dates, i.e. the
date of priority and the date of filing of the application under the Act cannot
be accepted, in view of the clear language used in the said statutory rule.
The plan and grammatical meaning of the word “later” is opposite of the
word “earlier”. It cannot be said that the word “later” is a synonym for the
word “earlier”. In fact, the word “later” is the antonym of the word
“earlier”. When we examine the meaning of the word “earlier” in the
context in which it has been used, we do not find any justification for not
adopting the plain and grammatical meaning of the word “earlier”, and there
is no justification brought forth for reading the same as “later”.
22.
No doubt, clauses (iii), (iv) and (v) and Rule 24B(1) use the word
“later”. However, that by itself is no reason to construe the word “earlier”
used in Rule 24B(1)(i) to mean “later”. When one examines clauses (iii),
(iv) and (v) Rule 24B(1), one finds that they deal with materially different
fact situations which are covered by proviso (ii) to Sub-Section (4) of
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Section 11(B); explanation to Section 16(3), and; applications filed before
01.01.2005 (i.e. prior to coming into force of the Amendment Act, 2015 of
2005).
23.
Learned counsel for the petitioner and the learned counsel for the
intervener have not been able to point out as to how the adoption of the rule
of literal interpretation in the matter of interpretation of Rule 24B(1)(i) leads
to any absurdity, or to a result which goes contrary to the purpose of the
statute. Literal interpretation of Rule 24B(1)(i) does not render it
unworkable. The submission that adoption of the literal and grammatical
interpretation would lead to prejudice to the petitioner, since the petitioner
was acting bona fide under a false impression created by an incorrect
opinion and advice, cannot be a ground to bend the interpretation of the law.
While undertaking the exercise of statutory interpretation, the facts of a
particular case – in the context whereof such exercise may be undertaken,
cannot have a bearing on the interpretation. The facts of the case only serve
as a “situation” to test the efficacy of the interpretation of the statute. If the
interpretation of a statute were to be guided by the end result that it would
bring about in the facts of a given case, then the exercise of interpretation
would have to be undertaken afresh, whenever a fresh fact situation presents
itself. That is not how the exercise of interpretation of a statute is
undertaken. For example, the interpretation of the law of limitation bars the
remedy of a plaintiff, who prefers his suit late by even a single day beyond
the period of limitation. That cannot be a reason to say that Section 3 of the
Limitation Act should be construed as directory, and that Section 5 of the
Limitation Act should be made applicable even to a suit. If a party is faced
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with a legal consequence which may be adverse to his/ her interest – on
account of his/ her acts and/ or omissions, the legal consequence cannot be
avoided by the Court by adopting an interpretation of the law which is not
supported by the well recognised principles of Statutory Interpretation.
Thus, we reject the submission of Ld. Counsels for the petitioner and the
Intervener that the word “earlier” used in Rule 24B(1)(i) should be read as
“later”.
24.
The argument of learned counsel for the intervener that the word
“earlier”, if read literally, would render the later part of Rule 24B(1)(i),
which reads “or from the date of filing of the application, whichever is
earlier” redundant, appears weighty on first blush. This is for the reason
that it is difficult to fathom a situation where the date of priority would be
later than the date of filing of the application. Thus, invariably, the date of
priority would be earlier to the date of filing of the application. If the period
of limitation of 48 months for making a request for examination is construed
as “earlier” of the two dates, namely the date of priority and the date of
filing of the application, invariably, the period of limitation would be 48
months from the date of priority.
25.
However, there is counter argument, which is equally – if not more
weightily. If the date of priority would invariably be earlier than the date of
application – as pointed out by the petitioner and intervener, and if the
intention of the rule making authority was to grant 48 months from the latter
of the two, the rule making authority need not have disturbed the position as
it existed in Section 11B(1) prior to amendment by Act 15 of 2005 with
effect from 01.01.2005. As noticed above, Section 11B(1) prior to
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amendment provided that the request for examination should be made within
48 months of the making of the application for grant of patent. The
argument of the petitioner and the intervener, therefore, cuts both ways.
Since the priority date would invariably be earlier to the date of the
application, it would serve no purpose to use the expression “whichever is
later” – since the date of the application would invariably be later, and it
would have sufficed to simply say that the request for examination should be
made within 48 months of the date of the application of the patent. The use
of the expression “whichever is earlier”, therefore, cannot be passed off as
an obvious typographical or printing error. There is a presumption of due
consideration and application of mind by the Rule framing authority, and
that presumption is not dislodged in the present case.
26.
At this stage, we may notice the decision of the Supreme Court in
Afcons Infrastructure Limited & Another Vs. Cherian Varkey
Construction Company Private Limited & Others, (2010) 8 SCC 24. In
this case, the Supreme Court considered the scope of Section 89 of the Code
of Civil Procedure (CPC) and the question: whether the said section
empowers the Court to refer the parties to a suit to arbitration, without the
consent of both parties. In respect of Section 89 CPC, the Supreme Court
observed:
“9. If Section 89 is to be read and required to be implemented
in its literal sense, it will be a trial Judge's nightmare. It puts
the cart before the horse and lays down an impractical, if not
impossible, procedure in sub-section (1). It has mixed up the
definitions in sub-section (2). In spite of these defects, the
object behind Section 89 is laudable and sound. Resort to
alternative disputes resolution (for short “ADR”) processes is
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necessary to give speedy and effective relief to the litigants and
to reduce the pendency in and burden upon the courts. As ADR
processes were not being resorted to with the desired
frequency, Parliament thought it fit to introduce Section 89 and
Rules 1-A to 1-C in Order 10 in the Code, to ensure that ADR
process was resorted to before the commencement of trial in
suits.
10. In view of its laudable object, the validity of Section 89,
with all its imperfections, was upheld in Salem Advocate Bar
Assn. (I) v. Union of India [(2003) 1 SCC 49] [for short Salem
Bar (I)] but referred to a committee, as it was hoped that
Section 89 could be implemented by ironing the creases.
In Salem Advocate Bar Assn. (II) v. Union of India [(2005) 6
SCC 344] [for short Salem Bar (II)], this Court applied the
principle of purposive construction in an attempt to make it
workable.”
27.
After setting out the anomalies that lay in the language of Section 89
CPC, the Supreme Court proceeded to examine, as to how the said Section
should be interpreted. It observed:
“20. The principles of statutory interpretation are well settled.
Where the words of the statute are clear and unambiguous,
the provision should be given its plain and normal meaning,
without adding or rejecting any words. Departure from the
literal rule, by making structural changes or substituting
words in a clear statutory provision, under the guise of
interpretation will pose a great risk as the changes may not be
what the legislature intended or desired. Legislative wisdom
cannot be replaced by the Judge's views. As observed by this
Court in a somewhat different context:
“6. … When a procedure is prescribed by the
legislature, it is not for the court to substitute a
different one according to its notion of justice.
When the legislature has spoken, the judges
cannot afford to be wiser.”
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(See Shri Mandir Sita Ramji v. Lt. Governor of
Delhi [(1975) 4 SCC 298] , SCC p. 301, para 6.)
21. There is however an exception to this general rule. Where
the words used in the statutory provision are vague and
ambiguous or where the plain and normal meaning of its
words or grammatical construction thereof would lead to
confusion, absurdity, repugnancy with other provisions, the
courts may, instead of adopting the plain and grammatical
construction, use the interpretative tools to set right the
situation, by adding or omitting or substituting the words in
the statute. When faced with an apparently defective provision
in a statute, courts prefer to assume that the draftsman had
committed a mistake rather than concluding that the legislature
has deliberately introduced an absurd or irrational statutory
provision. Departure from the literal rule of plain and straight
reading can however be only in exceptional cases, where the
anomalies make the literal compliance with a provision
impossible, or absurd or so impractical as to defeat the very
object of the provision. We may also mention purposive
interpretation to avoid absurdity and irrationality is more
readily and easily employed in relation to procedural
provisions than with reference to substantive provisions.
21.1. Maxwell on Interpretation of Statutes (12th Edn., p. 228),
under the caption “modification of the language to meet the
intention”
in
the
chapter
dealing
with
“Exceptional
Construction” states the position succinctly:
“Where the language of a statute, in its ordinary
meaning and grammatical construction, leads to
a manifest contradiction of the apparent purpose
of the enactment, or to some inconvenience or
absurdity, hardship or injustice, which can hardly
have been intended, a construction may be put
upon it which modifies the meaning of the words,
and even the structure of the sentence. This may
be done by departing from the rules of grammar,
by giving an unusual meaning to particular words,
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or by rejecting them altogether, on the ground that
the legislature could not possibly have intended
what its words signify, and that the modifications
made are mere corrections of careless language
and really give the true meaning. Where the main
object and intention of a statute are clear, it must
not be reduced to a nullity by the draftsman's
unskilfulness or ignorance of the law, except in a
case of necessity, or the absolute intractability of
the language used.”
This Court in Tirath Singh v. Bachittar Singh [AIR 1955 SC
830] approved and adopted the said approach.
21.2. In Shamrao
V.
Parulekar v. District
Magistrate,
Thana [AIR 1952 SC 324 : 1952 Cri LJ 1503] this Court
reiterated the principle from Maxwell: (AIR p. 327, para 12)
“12. … if one construction will lead to an
absurdity while another will give effect to what
common sense would show was obviously
intended, the construction which would defeat the
ends of the Act must be rejected even if the same
words used in the same section, and even the same
sentence, have to be construed differently. Indeed,
the law goes so far as to require the courts
sometimes even to modify the grammatical and
ordinary sense of the words if by doing so
absurdity and inconsistency can be avoided.”
21.3. In Molar Mal v. Kay Iron Works (P) Ltd. [(2000) 4 SCC
285] this Court while reiterating that courts will have to follow
the rule of literal construction, which enjoins the court to take
the words as used by the legislature and to give it the meaning
which naturally implies, held that there is an exception to that
rule. This Court observed: (SCC p. 295, para 12)
“12. … That exception comes into play when
application of literal construction of the words in
the statute leads to absurdity, inconsistency or
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
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when it is shown that the legal context in which
the words are used or by reading the statute as a
whole, it requires a different meaning.”
21.4. In Mangin v. IRC [1971 AC 739 : (1971) 2 WLR 39 :
(1971) 1 All ER 179 (PC)] the Privy Council held: (AC p. 746
E)
“… the object of the construction of a statute being
to ascertain the will of the legislature it may be
presumed that neither injustice nor absurdity was
intended. If therefore a literal interpretation would
produce such a result, and the language admits of
an interpretation which would avoid it, then such
an interpretation may be adopted.”
21.5. A classic example of correcting an error committed by the
draftsman in legislative drafting is the substitution of the words
“defendant's witnesses” by this Court for the words “plaintiff's
witnesses” occurring in Order 7 Rule 14(4) of the Code,
in Salem Bar (II) [(2005) 6 SCC 344] . We extract below the
relevant portion of the said decision: (SCC pp. 368-69, para
35)
“35. Order 7 relates to the production of
documents by the plaintiff whereas Order 8 relates
to production of documents by the defendant.
Under Order 8 Rule 1-A(4) a document not
produced by the defendant can be confronted to
the plaintiff's witness during cross-examination.
Similarly, the plaintiff can also confront the
defendant's witness with a document during cross-
examination. By mistake, instead of „defendant's
witnesses‟, the words „plaintiff's witnesses‟ have
been mentioned in Order 7 Rule 14(4). To avoid
any confusion, we direct that till the legislature
corrects the mistake, the words „plaintiff's
witnesses‟, would be read as „defendant's
witnesses‟ in Order 7 Rule 14(4). We, however,
hope that the mistake would be expeditiously
corrected by the legislature.”
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
Page 20 of 39
21.6. Justice G.P. Singh extracts four conditions that should be
present to justify departure from the plain words of the statute,
in his treatise Principles of Statutory Interpretation (12th Edn.,
2010, Lexis Nexis, p. 144) from the decision of the House of
Lords in Stock v. Frank Jones (Tipton) Ltd. [(1978) 1 WLR 231
: (1978) 1 All ER 948 (HL)] : (WLR p. 237 F-G)
“… a court would only be justified in departing
from the plain words of the statute when it is
satisfied that: (1) there is clear and gross balance
of anomaly; (2) Parliament, the legislative
promoters and the draftsman could not have
envisaged such anomaly, could not have been
prepared to accept it in the interest of a
supervening legislative objective; (3) the anomaly
can be obviated without detriment to such
legislative objective; (4) the language of the
statute is susceptible of the modification required
to obviate the anomaly.”” (emphasis supplied)
28.
Thus, the general rule of plain and grammatical interpretation – when
the words of a Statute are clear and unambiguous, may be given a go-bye
when the words used in the statutory provision are vague and ambiguous,
and where the plain and normal meaning of the words or grammatical
construction thereof leads to confusion, absurdity or repugnancy with other
provisions. In such a situation, the Court may, instead of adopting the plain
and grammatical construction, use the interpretative tools to set right the
situation by adding, or omitting, or substituting the words in the Statute.
However, departure from the literal rule of plain and grammatical reading
can be made only in exceptional cases where the anomalies make the literal
compliance with a provision impossible, or absurd, or so impractical so as to
defeat the very object of the provision.
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
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29.
When viewed in the aforesaid light, we are of the opinion that it
cannot be said, that the intention of the legislature, while framing Rule
24B(1)(i), was to grant time to make a request for examination of the patent
application, up to the expiry of 48 months from the date of priority, or the
date of the application for patent, whichever is later. The presumption is
that a conscious decision was taken by the rule making authority to provide
4 years from the earlier of the two dates, i.e. the date of priority, and the date
of the patent application.
30.
On our examination of the aforesaid rule, we cannot reach to the
conclusion that there is a clear and gross anomaly; or that the Parliament/
Rule making Authority, or draftsmen could not have envisaged the fixing of
the period of 4 years limitation for making the application for examination
from the earlier of the two dates, i.e. the priority date, and the date of the
application for patent. Moreover, the language of the Statute is clearly not
susceptible of the modification that the petitioner and the intervener would
like us to make therein, i.e. to read “whichever is earlier” as “whichever is
later”.
31.
Since the language used in the Rule is absolutely clear and does not
admit of any ambiguity, and adoption of the literal rule of interpretation does
not render the Rule unworkable, we must accept the plain meaning of the
words used, i.e. “whichever is earlier”. Pertinently, there is no challenge to
the validity of Rule 24B(1)(i) in the present petition.
32.
However, in view of the above submission of the petitioner and the
Intervener, we are inclined to direct the Ministry of Law & Justice to
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
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examine the aforesaid aspect and, if it finds that the words “whichever is
earlier” should read “whichever is later”, necessary amendment in the said
Rule should be made without any delay.
33.
We now proceed to consider the issue whether the period of
limitation– for making the application for examination, prescribed by Rule
24B(1)(i), is mandatory or directory. The purpose of prescribing the
limitation period for the exercise of any right, or performance of any
obligation is, inter alia, to safeguard the rights of others, who may be
interested in, or affected by the launching and initiation of a legal remedy or
other step, and to bring about a quietus and settle matters once and for all. If
no period of limitation were to be prescribed for the exercise of any right, or
performance of any obligation, it would lead to a great amount of
uncertainty and settled positions could be unsettled at any point of time to
the detriment of others. In N. Balakrishnan Vs. M. Krishnamurthy, (1998)
7 SCC 123, the Supreme Court, inter alia, has observed:
“11. Rules of limitation are not meant to destroy the rights of
parties. They are meant to see that parties do not resort to
dilatory tactics, but seek their remedy promptly. The object of
providing a legal remedy is to repair the damage caused by
reason of legal injury. The law of limitation fixes a lifespan for
such legal remedy for the redress of the legal injury so suffered.
Time is precious and wasted time would never revisit. During
the efflux of time, newer causes would sprout up necessitating
newer persons to seek legal remedy by approaching the courts.
So a lifespan must be fixed for each remedy. Unending period
for launching the remedy may lead to unending uncertainty
and consequential anarchy. The law of limitation is thus
founded on public policy. It is enshrined in the maxim interest
reipublicae up sit finis litium (it is for the general welfare that
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
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a period be put to litigation). Rules of limitation are not meant
to destroy the rights of the parties. They are meant to see that
parties do not resort to dilatory tactics but seek their remedy
promptly. The idea is that every legal remedy must be kept
alive for a legislatively fixed period of time.” (emphasis
supplied)
34.
In Kailash Vs. Nanhku, (2005) 4 SCC 480, the Supreme Court was
concerned with interpretation of Order 8 Rule 1 CPC as amended by the
Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 (22 of 2002) (w.e.f
01.07.2002). The said provision reads as follows:
“1. Written statement.—The
defendant shall,
within thirty days from the date of service of
summons on him, present a written statement of his
defence:
Provided that where the defendant fails to file the
written statement within the said period of thirty
days, he shall be allowed to file the same on such
other day, as may be specified by the court, for
reasons to be recorded in writing, but which shall
not be later than ninety days from the date of
service of summons.”
35.
One of the issues that arose for consideration before the Supreme
Court was whether the time limit of 90 days prescribed in the proviso
appended to Rule 1 of Order 8 CPC is mandatory, or directory in nature.
The Supreme Court held that the time prescribed for filing of written
statement was not mandatory, and could be extended by the Court in the
facts and circumstances of the case. The reasons given by the Supreme
Court for the said interpretation were that: no consequence of such failure
was prescribed by the law; there was no provision taking away the power of
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
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the Court to take the written statement on record though filed beyond the
time provided for, and; the object of the provision was to expedite the
hearing, and not to scuttle the remedy. The Supreme Court observed:
“27. Three things are clear. Firstly, a careful reading of the
language in which Order 8 Rule 1 has been drafted, shows that
it casts an obligation on the defendant to file the written
statement within 30 days from the date of service of summons
on him and within the extended time falling within 90 days. The
provision does not deal with the power of the court and also
does not specifically take away the power of the court to take
the written statement on record though filed beyond the time
as provided for. Secondly, the nature of the provision contained
in Order 8 Rule 1 is procedural. It is not a part of the
substantive law. Thirdly, the object behind substituting Order
8 Rule 1 in the present shape is to curb the mischief of
unscrupulous defendants adopting dilatory tactics, delaying
the disposal of cases much to the chagrin of the plaintiffs and
petitioners approaching the court for quick relief and also to
the serious inconvenience of the court faced with frequent
prayers for adjournments. The object is to expedite the
hearing and not to scuttle the same. The process of justice may
be speeded up and hurried but the fairness which is a basic
element of justice cannot be permitted to be buried.
28.
All the rules of procedure are the handmaid of justice.
The language employed by the draftsman of processual law
may be liberal or stringent, but the fact remains that the object
of prescribing procedure is to advance the cause of justice. In
an adversarial system, no party should ordinarily be denied the
opportunity of participating in the process of justice
dispensation. Unless compelled by express and specific
language of the statute, the provisions of CPC or any other
procedural enactment ought not to be construed in a manner
which would leave the court helpless to meet extraordinary
situations in the ends of justice... …
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
Page 25 of 39
30.
It is also to be noted that though the power of the court
under the proviso appended to Rule 1 Order 8 is circumscribed
by the words “shall not be later than ninety days” but the
consequences flowing from non-extension of time are not
specifically provided for though they may be read in by
necessary implication. Merely because a provision of law is
couched in a negative language implying mandatory character,
the same is not without exceptions. The courts, when called
upon to interpret the nature of the provision, may, keeping in
view the entire context in which the provision came to be
enacted, hold the same to be directory though worded in the
negative form.
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
33. As stated earlier, Order 8 Rule 1 is a provision contained in
CPC and hence belongs to the domain of procedural law.
Another feature noticeable in the language of Order 8 Rule 1 is
that although it appoints a time within which the written
statement has to be presented and also restricts the power of
the court by employing language couched in a negative way
that the extension of time appointed for filing the written
statement was not to be later than 90 days from the date of
service of summons yet it does not in itself provide for penal
consequences to follow if the time schedule, as laid down, is
not observed. From these two features certain consequences
follow.
34.
Justice
G.P.
Singh
notes
in
his
celebrated
work Principles of Statutory Interpretation (9th Edn., 2004)
while dealing with mandatory and directory provisions:
“The study of numerous cases on this topic does
not lead to formulation of any universal rule
except this that language alone most often is not
decisive, and regard must be had to the context,
subject-matter and object of the statutory provision
in question, in determining whether the same is
mandatory or directory. In an oft-quoted passage
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
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Lord Campbell said: „No universal rule can be
laid down as to whether mandatory enactments
shall be considered directory only or obligatory
with an implied nullification for disobedience. It is
the duty of courts of justice to try to get at the real
intention of the legislature by carefully attending
to the whole scope of the statute to be considered.‟
” (p. 338)
“ „For ascertaining the real intention of the
legislature‟, points out Subbarao, J. „the court
may consider inter alia, the nature and design of
the statute, and the consequences which would
follow from construing it the one way or the
other; the impact of other provisions whereby the
necessity of complying with the provisions in
question is avoided; the circumstances, namely,
that the statute provides for a contingency of the
non-compliance with the provisions; the fact that
the non-compliance with the provisions is or is
not visited by some penalty; the serious or the
trivial consequences, that flow therefrom; and
above all, whether the object of the legislation will
be defeated or furthered‟. If object of the
enactment will be defeated by holding the same
directory, it will be construed as mandatory,
whereas if by holding it mandatory serious general
inconvenience will be created to innocent persons
without very much furthering the object of
enactment, the same will be construed as
directory.”” (emphasis supplied)
36.
We may now take note of a decision of a learned Single Judge of this
Court in OKU Tech Private Limited Vs. Sangeet Agarwal & Ors., in
CS(OS) No.3390/2015 decided on 11.08.2016: MANU/DE/2036/2016. In
this case, the learned Single Judge was concerned with Section 16 read with
Schedule to the Commercial Courts, Commercial Division and Commercial
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
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Appellate Division of High Courts Act, 2015 (Commercial Courts Act), in
terms whereof the second proviso to Order V Rule 1, as well as the proviso
to order VIII Rule 1 were substituted by the following proviso:
“Provided further that where the defendant fails to file the
written statement within the said period of thirty days, he shall
be allowed to file the written statement on such other day, as
may be specified by the Court, for reasons to be recorded in
writing and on payment of such costs as the Court deems fit, but
which shall not be later than one hundred twenty days from the
date of service of summons and on expiry of one hundred
twenty days from the date of service of summons, the defendant
shall forfeit the right to file the written statement and the
Court shall not allow the written statement to be taken on
record." (emphasis supplied)
37.
The Court also noticed the proviso inserted in Order VIII Rule 10 by
the said amendment to the CPC in terms of Section 16 of the Commercial
Courts Act. The said proviso inserted to Order VIII Rule 10 reads as
follows:
“Provided further that no Court shall make an order to extend
the time provided under Rule 1 of this Order for filing of the
written statement.”
38.
The plaintiff contended that in the light of the aforesaid provisions
introduced in the CPC by the Commercial Courts Act, the time for filing of
the written-statement under Order VIII Rule 1 could not be extended and
that the decision in Kailash (supra) was not attracted. The learned Single
Judge accepted this submission of the plaintiff and observed as follows:
“7. The above submissions have been considered. The
Supreme
Court
had
in
Kailash
v.
Nankhu
MANU/SC/0264/2005 : JT 2005 (4) SC 204 interpreted the
W.P.(C) 4573/2012
Page 28 of 39
proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 CPC as still giving discretion
to the Court to extend the time for filing a written statement.
The proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 CPC in its original form
was held by the Supreme Court as not specifying any
consequences for non-compliance with the time line
envisaged thereunder. Therefore the time line under Order
VIII Rule 1 CPC was held to be directory. It is observed that
the power of the Court to extend beyond the time schedule
provided by Order VIII Rule 1 CPC "is not completely taken
away."
8. The amendments to the CPC brought out by the
Schedule to the Act seek to fill the above gap, as it were, in
the CPC. The substituted second proviso to Order V Rule 1
and the substituted proviso to Order VIII Rule 1 place an
outer limit of 120 days from the date of service of
summons up to which the Court can grant time to file
written statement. It categorically states that "on expiry of
120 days from the date of service of summons, the
Defendant shall forfeit the right to file the written
statement and the Court shall not allow the written
statement to be taken on record." This is re-emphasised by
inserting a proviso to Order VIII Rule 10 CPC, which
after such insertion, reads as under:
"10. Procedure when party falls to present
written statement called for by Court.--Where
any party from whom a written statement is
required under rule 1 or rule 9 fails to present
the same within the time permitted or fixed by
the Court, as the case may be, the Court shall
pronounce judgment against him, or make
such order is relating to the suit as it thinks fit
and on the pronouncement of such judgment a decree shall be drawn up. Provided further that no Court shall make an order to extend the time provided under Rule 1 of this Order for filing of the written statement."
“10. The controversy whether the provisions of Order 21, Rules 84, 85 and 86 are mandatory or not has been set at rest by this Court. The provisions of Order 21, Rules 84, 85 and 86 of the Code of Civil Procedure, as said earlier, are almost similar in terms to the provisions contained in Rule 285-D and Rule 285-E of the Land Reforms Rules. This Court in the case of Manilal Mohanlal Shah v. Sayed Ahmed [AIR 1954 SC 349 : (1955) 1 SCR 108] ruled as under: “Having examined the language of the relevant rules and the judicial decisions bearing upon the subject we are of opinion that the provisions of the rules requiring the deposit of 25 per cent of the purchase money immediately, on the person being declared as a purchaser and the payment of the balance within 15 days of the sale are mandatory and upon non-compliance with these provisions there is no sale at all. The rules do not contemplate that there can be any sale in favour of a purchaser without depositing 25 per cent of the purchase money in the first instance and the balance within 15 days. When there is no sale within the contemplation of these rules, there can be no question of material irregularity in the conduct of the sale. Non-payment of the price on the part of the defaulting purchaser renders the sale proceedings as a complete nullity. The very fact that the Court is bound to resell the property in the event of a default shows that the previous proceedings for sale are completely wiped out as if they do not exist in the eye of law. We hold, therefore, that in the circumstances of the present case there was no sale and the purchasers acquired no rights at all.”
“44. ... ... ... In a sense the knowledge of the existence or content of a law by an individual would not always be relevant, save on the question of the sentence to be imposed for its violation. It is obvious that for an Indian law to operate and be effective in the territory where it operates viz. the territory of India it is not necessary that it should either be published or be made known outside the country. Even if, therefore, the view enunciated by Bailhache, J. is taken to be correct, it would be apparent that the test to find out effective publication would be publication in India, not outside India so as to bring it to the notice of everyone who intends to pass through India. It was “published” and made known in India by publication in the Gazette on the 24th November and the ignorance of it by the respondent who is a foreigner is, in our opinion, wholly irrelevant. It is, no doubt, admitted on behalf of the prosecution in the present case that the respondent did not have actual notice of the notification of the Reserve Bank dated November 8, 1962 but, for the reasons stated, it makes, in our opinion, no difference to his liability to be proceeded against for the contravention of Section 8(1) of the Act.” (emphasis supplied)
A. K. CHAWLA, J JANUARY 10, 2019 nn/nk/sr